Infection
SECTION A: Read each question carefully and record the answer "TRUE" or "FALSE ":
1. Diseases typically acquired from animals Include
a) leptospirosis
b) Myobacterium tuberculosis
c) 0 fever
d) Lyme disease
e) hepatitis A
2. The infections listed below are associated with the following types of rash
a) anthrax-ulcerating nodules (chancres)
b) leptospirosis- haemorrhagic rash
c) toxocariasis---urticaria
d) herpes simplex-vesicular rash
e) rickettsial infection-erythema nodosum
3. HIV infection Is associated with
a) an RNA retrovirus
b) transmission via drug abusers more often than by sexual transmission in the UK
c) absence of involvement of B lymphocytes
d) disordered suppressor rather than helper! Lymphocytes
e) a better prognosis in the presence of Kaposi's sarcoma°
4. Recognised features of brucellosis include
a) an incubation period of 3+months
b) fever, night sweats and back pain
c) hepatospienomegaiy and epididymoorchitis
d) oligoarthritis and spondylitis
e) peripheral blood neutrophil leucocytosis
5. Paratyphoid fever rather than typhoid fever Is suggested by
a. onset with vomiting and diarrhea
b. an incubation period of 5-7 days
c. absence of an erythernatous macular rash
d. the development of a reactive arthritis
e. prominence of intestinal complications
6. In the diagnosis of the enteric fevers
a. blood cultures are usually positive 2 weeks after onset
b. stool cultures are usually positive within 7 days of onset
c. peripheral blood neutrophil leucocytosis is typically marked
d. the Widal reaction is typically positive within 7 days of onset
e. persistent fever despite antibiotics indicates resistant organisms
7. The following statements about penicillins are true
a) All penicillins are bactericidal
b) Like the cephalosporins, they contain a B-lactam ring
c) Clavulanic acid inhibits bacterial p-lactamase
d) They can safely be used in cephalosporin-allergic patients
e) They are best given intrathecally in bacterial meningitis
8. Antiviral agents active against the following viruses Include
a. gancictovir--cytomegalovirus
b. amantadine-orthomyxovirus
c. tribavirin-respiratory syncytial virus
d. zidovudine-retrovirus
e. famcictovir-herpes simplex and zoster virus
9. In the diagnosis and therapy of amoebiasis
a. amoebic liver abscesses usually reveal the presence of cysts
b. stool trophozoites are unlikely in the presence of blood or mucus
c. liver abscesses are best identified by ultrasound scanning
d. metronidazole therapy is effective in both liver and colonic disease
e. furamida therapy should also be given to eliminate colonic cyst
SECTION B: Only one Item appropriately applies to the Statement.
10. A 15-year old male child Infected with Schistosomiasis presents with generalizes oedema. The following complications may be held responsible
a) Cor Pulmolnale
b) Glomerulonephritis
c) Hepatocellular insufficiency
d) Nutritional hypoproteinemia
e) All of the above
11. Cell mediated immunity is effective against:
a) Extra cellular pathogens.
b) Antibody coated pathogens.
c) Intracellular pathogens.
d) Pathogens during viraemia or bacteremic phase.
12. Tricuspid endocarditis must be considered in evaluating FUO in:
a) Patient with splenectomy.
b) Patient with AIDS.
c) I. V. drug abusers.
d) Patients with congenital ASD or VSD.
13. Innate immunity is the function of all the following except:
a) Phagocytes.
b) T. lymphocytes.
c) Complement system.
d) Epithelieum and lysozymes.
14. Atypical mycobacteria infection must be considered in immunocompromised patient with:
a) Granulocytopenia.
b) Splenectomy.
c) Hypogammaglobuinemia.
d) CMI defects.
15. All of the following about acyclovir are correct except:
a. It is the treatment of choice for influenza infections.
b. It is incorporated into the viral DNA causing premature DNA chain termination. c) It is the treatment of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis.
c. It inhibits only actively replicating viruses, not latent ones.
d. It reduces the duration of lesions associated with genital herpes infections.
16. All the following statements about amantadine are correct except.
a. It is effective in the prophylaxis of influenza A infections.
b. It cause CNS disturbances in high doses.
c. It reduces the duration and severity of systemic symptoms of influenza A
d. It is extensively metabolized -
e. It is effective in the treatment of some cases of Parkinson's disease
17. All the following statement correctly describe ketoconazole except:
a. It inhibits the conversion of ionosterol to ergosterol.
b. It may produce gastrointestinal upsets.
c. It can cause gynaecomstia in males .
d. It penetrates into the cerebrospinal fluid
e. It should not be combined with amphotericin B.
18. which one of the following drugs Is not used for the treatment of systemic fungal infections
a) Amphotericin B
b) Flucytosine
c) Ketoconazole
d) Griseofulvin
e) Fluconazole
19. A 25 year old male AIDS patient has afever of 102°f and complains of severe headache during the past week. Staining the CSF with India ink reveals Cryptococcus neoformans the
patient is to be treated with
a) Oral ketoconazole
b) Intrathecal amphetericin B
c) Oral fluconazole
d) I V Amphotericin B plus ketoconazole.
20. A 30 year old male had a heart transplant and Is being maintained on the immune suppressant cyclosporine He develops a candida infection and is treated with ketoconazole.
Why is this poor therapy .
a) Ketoconazole is not effective against candida .
b) Ketoconazole reacts with cyclosporine to inactivate it
c) Ketoconazole has a potential for cardiatoxicity
d) Ketoconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes that inactivate cyclosporine
e) Ketoconazole causes gynecomastia
21. Which one of the following antiviral agents exhibits greatest selective toxicity for the Invading virus?
a) Interferon.
b) Amantadine
c) Acyclovir
d) Zidovadine
e) Ribavarin
22. Which one of the following drugs is both penicillinase resistant and effective by oral administration
a) Methicillin
b)Carbenicilen
c) Penicillin v
d) Amoxicillin +clvuelinic acid
e) Piperacillin
23. Which one of the following antibiotics is incorrectly matched with an appropriate clinical indication.
a) penicillin G : pneumonia caused by klebsiella pneumonice
b) carbenicillin : urinary tract infection caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa .
c) Ampicillin: bacterial meningitis caused by Hemophilus influenza (B lactamase negative).
d) Penicillin G: syphilis caused by treponema palladium.
e) Cefazolin: staphylococcal osteomylitis .
24. All of the following properties are exhibited by aminoglycosides Except.
a) They are poorly absorbed from gastrointestinal tract.
b) They have bactericidal properties,
c) They can achieve adequate serum levels after oral administration.
d) They bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit .
e) They are not accumulated by anaerobic microorganisms.
25. A patient treated by terfenadine (Triludane) for allergy & he develops an upper respiratory Infection. He receives an antibiotic and develops a cardiac arrhythmia what was the likely antibiotic.
a) Ampicillin
b) Cefaceor
c) Erythromycin
d) Doxycycline
e) gentamycin
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